1) John 1:3
2) Colossians 1:16
3) Hebrews 1:10 (discussed in a separate post)
John 1:3 and Colossians 1:16
The verses are as follows:
All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. (John 1:3)
For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: (Colossians 1:16)
There is no argument that the pronoun “him” refers to Jesus Christ; our contention is on the way we understand the verses.
Although I am not a good English speaker but I believe a little review of our English grammar would be handy. Try to consider the sentences,
All things were made by him. All things were created by him.
These are sentences in passive form. In order to convert these sentences to active form, we must assign a doer of the verbs “made” and “create”.
Christ-is-God believers insist that the doer of the verbs is Christ. If they convert the sentences to their active forms, they would say,
He(Christ) made all things. He(Christ) created all things.
However, we cannot see any other supporting verse that says actively and categorically that Jesus Christ created all things.
If we inspect Colossians 1:16, it says,
For by him were all things created…
The phrase “by him” is an adverbial clause. The sentence “ All things are created by him” is the same as “By him all things are created”. The object represented by the pronoun “him” is NOT the doer of the verbs. Hence, Christ is not the one who made all things and he is not the one who created all things.
WHO CREATED ALL THINGS?
In Ephesians 3:9, we can read the answer, thus,
“And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:”
It is the God, our Father who created all things. As written,
“Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us?” (Malachi 2:10)
“One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.” (Eph 4:6)
BY JESUS CHRIST?
What is the meaning of the adverbial clause “by him” or “by Jesus Christ”?
The second clause of John 1:3 says that “without him (Christ) was not anything made that was made”. This is a type of a “reason clause”. God created all things for a purpose. As written,
“And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ: To the intent that now unto the principalities and powers in heavenly places might be known by the church the manifold wisdom of God, According to the eternal purpose which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord:” (Eph 3:9-11) (emphasis mine)
What is the purpose of God?
In Ephesians 1:9-10, it says
“Having made known unto us the mystery of his will, according to his good pleasure which he hath purposed in himself: That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:”
Heir of All things
Christ is the appointed heir of all things (Hebrews 1:2). It does make a lot of sense that God the Father created all things for His heir. If Christ is already the creator and maker of things, then how can he be a heir?
If Christ is the maker and creator of all things, then what is the sense of saying “without him (Christ) was not anything made that was made”? Is not this an empty redundant statement?
As a heir, all things will be put under Christ and Christ himself will be subject to God so that the God may be all in all.(1 Cor 15:27-28)
