Tuesday, October 20, 2009

BEFORE ABRAHAM WAS I AM

Does this mean that Christ had pre-existence?

John 8:56-58 says,

“ Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad. Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham? Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.”

Christ-is-God believers would say “ Isn’t this a clear proof that Christ was already there even before Abraham?”

However, if we parallel our understanding on this verse with the native understanding of the Pharisees then altogether we would not understand Jesus. Jesus said to these Pharisees, “Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word.” (Jn 8:43).

Let us find out what Jesus Christ meant by His words.

“Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.” Does this verse compel us to understand that Abraham during his time already saw Jesus Christ? The answer is NO. The book of Hebrews in Chapter 11 gives us insight in understanding this pronouncement of Jesus Christ. Thus,

“These all died in faith, not having received the promises, but having seen them afar off, and were persuaded of them, and embraced them, and confessed that they were strangers and pilgrims on the earth.” (Heb 11:13) (emphasis mine)

The promise being referred to is everlasting covenant(Gen 17:7) with the seed of Abraham which is none other than Christ. As written,

“Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.” (Gal 3:16)

Thus, Abraham has seen the promise made by God to him concerning his seed which is Lord Jesus Christ. Jesus Christ DOES NOT say “Your father Abraham rejoiced to see me: and he was glad to see me” but rather say: “..rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.

BEFORE ABRAHAM WAS I AM

Does this also mean that Christ was there already before Abraham? What is being referred to by the term “before”? Is it with respect to time? Or is it with respect to authority and position?

Again, the book of Hebrews gives meaningful insight. In Heb 5:5-6, the prophecy concerning Christ is discussed.

Christ is a priest after the order of Milchisedec as prophesied in the book of Psalm in Ps 110:4, thus,

“The LORD hath sworn, and will not repent, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchizedek.”

Melchizedek happens to be the king of Salem, a priest of most high God who met Abraham and whom Abraham gave tenth of the spoil. Chapter 7 of the book of Hebrews asserts that Christ has priesthood that is not bound by levitical priesthood, i.e, the order of Aaron (the brother of Moses of which the Judaism is anchored). (Heb 7:11)
Hence, if there is a change in priesthood, there is a change in the law. (Heb 7:12) and the law should not be after carnal commandment but after the power of an endless life (verse 16).

Hence, in terms of priesthood, Christ is indeed before Abraham.

It makes a perfect sense why Lord Jesus Christ replied that he is before Abraham. The argument of the Pharisees was how they could be in bondage to any man and be made free if they are Abraham’s seed (John 8:33). This is tantamount to asking Jesus Christ of His authority to set anyone free (verse 32).

Second point: Being first with respect to time doesn’t warrant being first in order. There are instances in the bible that defeat this line of reasoning. Ismael was the first child of Abraham to his concubine Hagar yet the promise of eternal covenant was given to the lineage of Isaac. Esau was the first of the twin of Isaac but the blessing was given to Jacob.
Hence, granting without conceding that Christ existed before Abraham, the argument is pointless and invalid and it doesn’t answer the prime question of authority of Christ.